Yet another argument against conscientious objection by pharmacists

We've blogged before about the issue of conscientious objection by pharmacists, and it has remained a mystery to me about how pharmacists decide who should and should not be able to obtain certain prescriptions, based upon the purpose of the drug, particularly when the drug may have more than one use. This past week, in the BBC news, researchers have concluded that the contraceptive pill 'has stopped 100,00 deaths' over the last 50 years. Do the conscientious objecting pharmacists assume that anyone who takes the pill is using it only for birth control?